So I was watching the video where the woman couldn't answer the question; then I thought: what if she *did*, but in way that turned the tables, leaving the questioner flabbergasted. Here I am, at work, thinking about the most convoluted way to solve this problem. Here's what I came up with:

Let x be the time in hours it takes to go 80 miles. Set v(t) = 80.

You are watching: How many minutes is 80 miles

∫v(t)dt = 80 from 0 to x

Then 80x - 80(0) = 80

80x = 80

x = 1 hour

How would you answer this question, if you wanted to mess with that person?

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level 1

· 6y

How long does it take to go 80 miles if you're going 80mph? The answer is simple.

80 miles is the about half the width of Florida. Florida is where Disney world is. Disney world is where Mickey Mouse lives. Mickey Mouse is in many movies. Movies are made in Hollywood, California. California is where the gold rush happened. Often, gold rushers would find a single gold nugget. Obviously gold is good because it has a monetary value. We also know that time is money. How much money is one gold nugget worth? One hour. And there is your answer.

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level 1

· 6y

If I am going 80 miles per hour, it would take me 10 minutes to go 80 miles.

Since I am not going 80 miles per hour, the statement is vacuously true.

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level 2

· 6y

Logician

Logic major approves this statement.

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level 2

· 6y

I concur.

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level 2

· 6y

=> ftw

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level 1

· 6y

You could expand your answer by re-deriving the entire integral calculus.

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level 2

· 6y

UK Maths&Compsci

You could expand that by building up the definitions of real numbers from ZFC. *Then* use those to re-derrive integral calculus.

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level 1

· 6y

We know that there are 60 minutes in an hour. If we're traveling at a rate of 80 mph, then that means we're traveling at 80/60 = 8/6 = 4/3 miles per minute. After one minute we travel 4/3 miles. After two minutes we travel 4/3 + 4/3 miles. After 3 minutes we travel 4/3 + 4/3 + 4/3 miles. Thus after one hour (sixty minutes) we travel Σ(4/3)i where i goes from 1 to 60. So after one hour, we travel 4/3 * 60 = 240/3 = 80 miles.

To further convolute your answer, justify why it's a constant speed. You feel no force, therefore F = 0. You have mass, so by Newton's 2nd law a = 0. Since a = 0, v = constant.

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level 2

· 6y

Thus after one hour (sixty minutes) we travel Σ(4/3)i where i goes from 1 to 60.

Careful. Don't include the index in the summand in this case.

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level 1

Comment deleted by user · 6y

level 2

· 6y

A relativity approach to a problem is always refreshing and welcomed.

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· 6y

6.678 * 1046 planck times.

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· 6y

How about I try to add technicalities to make her right.

My physics teacher drilled into our heads that velocities are all relative.

Assumptions made: She answered 10 minutes. A plane overhead travels at 480 miles per hour.

Maybe she ignored 80 mi/hr because they where not moving. They are a fixed reference point to something else. She answered let's say 10 minutes because her reference point was a plane overhead. The plane being the only thing, maybe, in her view that was moving. If the plane was the reference point to them, they were moving about, let's say, 480 mph away from it. Again that was with the plane as the reference point. Of course the velocity 480mph would be negative because she is moving away from it as she is idle. As a result, she normalized the velocity to give her the speed. The speed, now normalized, is just positive 480 mph. At that speed, you hit 80 miles in 10 minutes.

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In all, instances, she was right. The girl questioning her never specified a point of reference. She only implied one.